Assume sn=0 and that the limit L=limn→∞∣∣snsn+1∣∣ exists. Show that if L<1, then limn→∞sn=0. (Hint: Select a so that L<a<1 and optain N so that ∣sn+1∣<a∣sn∣ for n≥N. Then show ∣sn∣<an−N∣sN∣ for n>N.)
Solution.
Let a=2L+1<1. Then because ε=a−L>0, there exists N such that for all n≥N,
∣∣∣∣snsn+1∣∣−L∣∣<a−L⟹∣sn+1∣<a∣sn∣.(∗)
(Scratchwork: To see where we get the inductive hypothesis, you can just write out what happens when iterating the inequality. For example, if n≥N, then n+1≥N as well, so
∣sn+2∣<a∣sn+1∣<a2∣sn∣.
The inductive hypothesis should be clear from here.) We will show that for any n≥N, we have
∣sn+k∣<ak∣sn∣for allk≥1.(†)
We proceed by induction on k.
Base case: (k=1) This is just (∗) above.
Inductive step: Assume ∣sn+k∣<ak∣sn∣. Then applying (∗) and the inductive hypothesis gives
∣sn+k+1∣<a∣sn+k∣<a⋅ak∣sn∣=ak+1∣sn∣.((∗) applied to n+k≥N)(inductive hypothesis)
In particular, (†) implies (by replacing n with N and k with n−N)
∣sn∣<an−N∣sN∣for alln>N.
Note that we need n>N instead of just n≥N since we need k≥1 to apply (†). Finally, since ∣a∣<1, we can Theorem 9.7(b), so by the squeeze lemma, ∣sn∣ converges and
n→∞lim∣sn∣≤n→∞liman−N∣sN∣=0.
Here, we used that N, and hence sN, are constants. This implies (by a previous homework problem) that limn→∞sn=0 as well.
Exercise 10.6
Let (sn) be a sequence such that
∣sn+1−sn∣<2−nfor alln∈N.
Prove (sn) is a Cauchy sequence and hence a convergent sequence.
Is the result in (a) true if we only assume ∣sn+1−sn∣<n1 for all n∈N?
Solution.
By the triangle inequality (and technically induction) and the assumption on (sn), we have for k≥0
Let ε>0. Since 2−n+1→0 (by Theorem 9.7(c) with a=21), there exists N such that if n≥N, then 2−n+1<ε. Let n,m≥N. Without loss of generality, we may assume m≥n; in the case m<n, we simply swap m and n in the following. By (∗),
∣sm−sn∣=∣∣sn+(m−n)−sn∣∣<2−n+1<ε.
No. For example, if sn=∑i=1ni1, then
sn+1−sn=n+11<n1,
but (sn) diverges (it's the harmonic series).
Common Mistakes
The only mistake I saw often was in part (2). Basically, if you write something like this:
No, because by the same argument above, we have
∣sn+k−sn∣<i=n∑n+k−1i1,
and the right-hand side diverges, so the result in (1) does not hold.
While nothing you wrote is incorrect, this argument just doesn't answer the question. All this shows is that our proof of (1) no longer works, but doesn't show that the result is false. For instance, what if there's a better proof that works in both cases that we don't know about?
To show that there's no proof possible, you just need to give a counter-example.
Exercise 10.7
Let S be a bounded nonempty subset of R such that supS is not in S. Prove there is a sequence (sn) of points in S such that limn→∞sn=supS.
Solution.
Let n∈N. Then because supS is the least upper bound of S, supS−n1 cannot be an upper bound for S. Thus, there exists sn∈S such that
supS−n1≤sn⟹∣sn−supS∣≤n1.
(Note that I used sn≤supS to get the inequality with an absolute value.) Thus, (by the axiom of countable choice) we get a sequence (sn) of elements in S such that ∣sn−supS∣≤n1. By the squeeze theorem, we immediately get sn→supS.