Let Ω1⊆Ω2 be bounded Jordan domains in C. We also assume that 0∈Ω1. Now suppose f1:D→Ω1 and f2:D→Ω2 are Riemann mappings, satisfying f1(0)=f2(0)=0. Show that
∣f1′(0)∣≤∣f2′(0)∣.
Solution.
First, notice that f2−1∘f1:D→D is holomorphic, since we had Riemann mappings. Observe also that