Show that if there exists an n≥1 such that f(n) is a polynomial, then f is a polynomial.
Prove that for any n>1 we have f(n)(z)=ez.
Solution.
Suppose otherwise, and let n be minimal, i.e., f(n) is polynomial but f(n−1) is not. Then f(n−1) has an essential singularity at ∞, so by Casorati-Weierstrass, there exists a sequence {zk}k such that zk→∞ and f(n−1)(zk)→z0∈C. But by continuity,
f(n)(zk)=f(f(n−1)(zk))k→∞f(z0)=∞,
but this contradicts the fact that polynomials have a pole at ∞. Thus, no n could have existed to begin with.
Suppose otherwise, so that f(n)(z)=ez. Then
f(ez)=f(f(n)(z))=f(n)(f(z))=ef(z).
Thus, if g(z)=f(ez)=ef(z), then we see that g must omit 0, since ef(z)=0 for any z. Similarly, since ez=0, we also see that g omits f(0). Since f is non-constant, little Picard implies that f(0)=0. But this means
1=e0=f(n)(0)=0,
a contradiction. Thus, no n could have existed to begin with.