Let f:D→C be an injective and holomorphic function with f(0)=0 and f′(0)=1. Show that then
inf{∣w∣∣w∈/f(D)}≤1
with equality if and only if f(z)=z for all z∈D.
Solution.
Suppose inf{∣w∣∣w∈/f(D)}=1+ε>1 for some ε>0. Equivalently, f(D)c⊆{∣w∣≥1+ε} so taking complements, f(D)⊇{∣w∣<1+ε}=B(0,1+ε).
Let U=f−1(B(0,1+ε))⊆D, which is open since f is continuous. Because f is injective, f restricts to a biholomorphism g−1=f∣U:U→B(0,1+ε), so g:B(0,1+ε)→D with g(0)=0. Applying the Schwarz lemma to g((1+ε)z), we get ∣g(z)∣≤1+ε∣z∣ for z∈B(0,1+ε). Thus, for z∈U, f(z)∈B(0,1+ε) and so we may apply the inequality:
∣z∣=∣(g∘f)(z)∣≤1+ε∣f(z)∣⟹∣f(z)∣≥(1+ε)∣z∣.
But 0∈U, so for z close enough to 0,
1+ε≤∣∣zf(z)∣∣z→0∣f′(0)∣=1,
a contradiction. Thus, inf{∣w∣∣w∈/f(D)}≤1 to begin with.
To prove the second claim, first, if f(z)=z, then f(D)=D, so d(f(D)c,0)=1 and we have equality. Conversely, suppose we had equality, which means
f(D)c⊆{∣w∣≥1}⟹f(D)⊇{∣w∣<1}=D
As before, let U=f−1(D) and let g:D→U⊆D be the holomorphic inverse of f restricted to U.
1=(f∘g)′(0)=f′(g(0))g′(0)=f′(0)g′(0)=g′(0),
so by the Schwarz lemma, g(z)=z and so f(z)=z as well, which completes the proof.