Spring 2016 - Problem 3

Lebesgue differentiation theorem

Let fLloc1(R)f \in L^1_{\mathrm{loc}}\p{\R} be real-valued and assume that for each integer n>0n > 0, we have

f(x+1n)f(x),f\p{x + \frac{1}{n}} \geq f\p{x},

for almost all xRx \in \R. Show that for each real number a0a \geq 0, we have

f(x+a)f(x)f\p{x + a} \geq f\p{x}

for almost all xRx \in \R.

Solution.

Let c<dc < d and observe that for any n,kNn, k \in \N,

cdf(y+kn)f(y)dycdf(y+1n)f(y)dy0\int_c^d f\p{y + \frac{k}{n}} - f\p{y} \,\diff{y} \geq \int_c^d f\p{y + \frac{1}{n}} - f\p{y} \,\diff{y} \geq 0

by iterating the inequality. This shows that the inequality holds for any non-negative rational. Let a0a \geq 0 and let {qn}nQ\set{q_n}_n \subseteq \Q be a sequence which converges to aa. Since translation is continuous on L1([c,d])L^1\p{\br{c,d}}, we get

cdf(y+qn)f(y)dyncdf(y+a)f(y)dy0,\int_c^d f\p{y + q_n} - f\p{y} \,\diff{y} \xrightarrow{n\to\infty} \int_c^d f\p{y + a} - f\p{y} \,\diff{y} \geq 0,

since each term in the sequence was non-negative. Almost every xRx \in \R is a Lebesgue point, so it suffices to show that the claim is true for xx a Lebesgue point of both f(y)f\p{y} and f(y+a)f\p{y + a}. Since c,dc, d were arbitrary in the above, we may set [c,d]=B(x,r)\br{c, d} = B\p{x, r}. Hence,

xrx+rf(y+a)f(y)dy0    12rxrx+rf(y+a)f(y)dy0,\int_{x-r}^{x+r} f\p{y + a} - f\p{y} \,\diff{y} \geq 0 \implies \frac{1}{2r} \int_{x-r}^{x+r} f\p{y + a} - f\p{y} \,\diff{y} \geq 0,

so by the Lebesgue differentiation theorem, the average tends to

f(x+a)f(x)0,f\p{x + a} - f\p{x} \geq 0,

which completes the proof.