Spring 2016 - Problem 11

Rouché's theorem

Assume that f(z)f\p{z} is holomorphic on z<2\abs{z} < 2. Show that

maxz=1f(z)1z1.\max_{\abs{z}=1}\,\abs{f\p{z} - \frac{1}{z}} \geq 1.
Solution.

Suppose otherwise and that maxz=1f(z)1z<1\max_{\abs{z}=1} \abs{f\p{z} - \frac{1}{z}} < 1. If g(z)=zf(z)1g\p{z} = zf\p{z} - 1, then we have

maxz=1g(z)=maxz=1zf(z)1z=maxz=1f(z)1z<1,\max_{\abs{z}=1}\,\abs{g\p{z}} = \max_{\abs{z}=1}\, \abs{z}\abs{f\p{z} - \frac{1}{z}} = \max_{\abs{z}=1}\, \abs{f\p{z} - \frac{1}{z}} < 1,

so by Rouché's theorem, 11 and 1+g1 + g have the same number of zeroes, i.e., 1+g1 + g does not vanish in D\D. But this means that

1+g(z)=zf(z)1 + g\p{z} = zf\p{z}

does not vanish in D\D, which is impossible as this implies that ff is unbounded near z=0z = 0. Thus, the maximum must have been larger than 11 to begin with.