Solution.
Notice that
(f′(z)+if(z))(f′(z)−if(z))=1,
so neither factors may vanish. Thus, f′+f admits a logarithm, i.e., there exists an entire function g such that
eg(z)=f′(z)+if(z).
We also get
eg(z)(f′(z)−if(z))=1⟹f′(z)−if(z)=e−g(z).
If h(z)=ig(z), then g(z)=ih(z), so eih(z)=f′(z)+if(z). This implies
f(z)=sinh(z)andf′(z)=cosh(z).
Taking derivatives,
f′(z)=h′(z)cosh(z)=h′(z)f′(z)⟹f′(z)(1−h′(z))=0.
If f is constant, then f(z)2=1, so f(z)=1 or f(z)=−1, identically. Otherwise, we see that f′(z) is zero only on an isolated set, which means that h′(z)=1 except possibly on an isolated set. But by continuity, it follows that h′(z)=1 everywhere, so h(z)=z+c for some constant c.
In summary, if f is constant, then f(z)=1 or f(z)=−1. Otherwise, f(z)=cos(z+c) for some constant c, which completes the proof.