Solution.
Suppose otherwise, and that ∣f′(0)∣>1. First, notice that
(fn)′(0)=f′(fn(0))(fn)′(0)=f′(0)(fn)′(0).
By induction, we see that (fn)′(0)=(f′(0))n.
Let R>0 be big enough so that U⊆B(0,R). Thus, ∣f(z)∣≤R for all z∈U. Let B(0,r)⊆U. Since fn is holomorphic, we have the Cauchy estimate
∣(fn)′(0)∣≤rR⟹∣f′(0)∣n≤rR.
Thus, ∣f′(0)∣≤1 or else we may send n→∞ to see rR=∞, which is impossible.