Show that the only entire function f(z) obeying both
∣f′(z)∣≤e∣z∣andf(1+∣n∣n)=0for alln∈Z
is the zero function. Here ′ denotes differentiation.
Solution.
Suppose there exists such a function f which is not the zero function. First, by the fundamental theorem of calculus,
f(z)=∫0zf′(z)dz+f(0)⟹∣f(z)∣≤∣z∣e∣z∣,
since f(0)=0. Since ex≥x, we see ∣f(z)∣≤e2∣z∣.
Since f is not identically zero, there exists n0∈N so that g(z):=z−n0f(z) satisfies g(0)=0. The zeroes of f cannot accumulate, so the zeroes are countable, so let {an}n be an enumeration of the zeroes of f, which are precisely the zeroes of g.
First, notice that if n is large enough, say, n≥N, then ∣∣1+∣n∣n∣∣≤n. Thus, for any M≥N,
Since g only has countably many zeroes, it follows that we may send R→∞. But because the dominating term is −⌊R2⌋logR, we see log∣g(0)∣≤−∞, which is impossible as g(0)=0. Thus, f must have been identically zero to begin with, which completes the proof.