Suppose fn→f Lebesgue almost everywhere. Show that f∈L1 and fn→f in the L1 sense.
Hint: Consider gn(x)=max(fn(x),λ) for certain choices of λ.
Solution.
Set
C=nsup∫01fn(x)log(2+fn(x))dx.
Since fn≥0, we see that log(2+fn)≥log2≥0. Thus, we may apply Fatou's lemma to get
log(2)∫01f(x)log(2)dx≤∫01f(x)log(2+f(x))dx=∫01n→∞liminf(fn(x)log(2+fn(x)))dx≤n→∞liminf∫01fn(x)log(2+fn(x))dx≤C<∞,(fn→f and continuity of logx)
so f∈L1([0,1]). To show convergence in L1, first notice that for λ>0,
Thus, we may pick λ>0 so that this term is smaller than ε.
Next, notice that fnχ{fn≤λ}→fχ{f≤λ} almost everywhere. Indeed, if x is such that fn(x)→f(x), then there are three cases: if f(x)>λ, then for n large enough, we must have fn(x)>λ as well, so fn(x)χ{fn≤λ}(x)=0=f(x)χ{f≤λ}. If f(x)=λ, then fn(x)χ{fn≤λ}(x)=λ or fn(x), both of which converge to λ. Finally, if f(x)<λ, then eventually fn(x)<λ, so fn(x)χ{fn≤λ}(x)=fn(x)→f(x)=f(x)χ{f≤λ}. Moreover, fnχ{fn≤λ}≤λ∈L1([0,1]), so by dominated convergence, the second term vanishes as n→∞.
Finally, observe that ∣∣f−fχ{f<n}∣∣→0 almost everywhere and ∣∣f−fχ{f<n}∣∣≤2f∈L1([0,1]), so by dominated convergence,
∣∣∫fχ{f≥n}dx∣∣≤∫∣∣f−fχ{f<n}∣∣dxn→∞0.
Thus, making λ larger if necessary, we have ∥∥fχ{f>λ}∥∥L1<ε. Hence,