Consider a sequence of measurable functions fn:[0,1]→R that converge (Lebesgue) almost everywhere to a measurable function f:[0,1]→R. Then for any ε>0, there exists a measurable set E⊆[0,1] with measure ∣E∣<ε such that fn converge uniformly on [0,1]∖E.
Solution.
Fix ε>0.
Let En(k)=⋃m≥n{x∣∣fm(x)−f(x)∣≥k1}. Observe that x∈⋂n≥1En(k) if and only if for all n≥1, there exists m≥n such that ∣fm(x)−f(x)∣≥k1, i.e., x is not a point of convergence for {fn}n. Since fn→f Lebesgue almost everywhere, En+1(k)⊆En(k), and m([0,1])<∞ (m denotes the Lebesgue measure), we have
n→∞limm(En(k))=m(n≥1⋂En(k))=0.
Thus, setting k=1, there exists n1≥0 such that m(En1(1))<2ε. Suppose we have chosen n1<⋯<nk. Then there exists nk+1>nk such that m(Enk+1)<2k+1ε, since m(En(k+1))→0 as n→∞. By induction, there exists a strictly increasing sequence {nk}k such that m(Enk(k))<2kε. Thus, if we set E=⋃k≥1Enk(k), then