Spring 2009 - Problem 8

Picard's little theorem

Let f(z)f\p{z} be an entire non-constant function that satisfies the functional equation

f(1z)=1f(z)f\p{1 - z} = 1 - f\p{z}

for all zCz \in \C. Show that f(C)=Cf\p{\C} = \C.

Solution.

Suppose there exists wf(C)w \notin f\p{\C}. This implies that f(z)=wf\p{z} = w has no solutions. By a change of variables, this means f(1z)=wf\p{1 - z} = w has no solutions and so

w=f(1z)=1f(z)    f(z)=1ww = f\p{1 - z} = 1 - f\p{z} \implies f\p{z} = 1 - w

has no solutions either. Thus, if w1ww \neq 1 - w, this implies that ff misses two points, which contradicts Picard's little theorem. Hence, it must be that w=1w    w=12w = 1 - w \implies w = \frac{1}{2}, but this is also impossible as

f(112)=1f(12)    f(12)=12.f\p{1 - \frac{1}{2}} = 1 - f\p{\frac{1}{2}} \implies f\p{\frac{1}{2}} = \frac{1}{2}.

Thus, no ww could have existed to begin with, i.e., f(C)=Cf\p{\C} = \C, as required.